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Is it possible for a person diagnosed with Paranoid Schizophrenia (for example) to be (accurately) declared Competent to Stand Trial with no basis for the insanity defense? Why or why not? Give a case illustration / example to illustrate your explanation

Is it possible for a person diagnosed with Paranoid Schizophrenia (for example) to be (accurately) declared Competent to Stand Trial with no basis for the insanity defense?  Why or why not? Give a case illustration / example to illustrate your explanation





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